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(Paper) CA-CPT Previous Year Question Paper "June - 2014", Set- 2

(Paper) CA-CPT Previous Year Question Paper "June - 2014"

Session - 2

Part A – General Economics

1. Which statement is true about law of demand

a) Price rises; Demand rises
b) Price falls ; Demand falls
c) Price falls; Demand rises
d) Income falls; Demand rises

2. Which of the following is not a determinant of demand

a) Income of the consumers
b) Price of related goods
c) Quantity Supplied of a commodity
d) Consumer’s Taste & Preferences

3. Generally when income of a consumer increases he goes for superior goods, leading to fall in demand for inferior goods. It means income elasticity of demand is ______

a) Less than one
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) Unitary

4. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of land

a) A Free gift of nature
b) Its supply is fixed
c) An active factor of production
d) It has Different Uses

5. An entrepreneur undertakes which of the following functions

a) Initiating a business and resource coordination
b) Risk or uncertainity bearing
c) Innovation
d) All of the following

6. With a view to increase his production Hari Haran a manufacturer of shoes, increases all the factors of production in his unit by 100%. But at the end of year he finds that instead of an increase of 100%, his production has increased by only 80%. Which law of returns to scale is operating in this case _____

a) Increasing returns to scale
b) Decreasing returns to scale
c) Constant returns to scale
d) None of the above

7. A demand curve parallel to y-axis implies

a) Ep=0
b) Ep=1
c) Ep<1
d) Ep>1

8. Marginal Cost changes due to change in ____ Cost

a) Variable
b) Fixed
c) Total
d) Average

9. A firm produces 10 units of commodity at an average total cost of Rs.200 and with a fixed cost of Rs.500. Find out component of average variable cost in total cost.

a) Rs.300
b) Rs.200
c) Rs.150
d) Rs.100

10. Average total cost to firm is Rs. 600 when it produces 10 units of output and Rs. 640 when the output is 11 units. The MC of the 11th unit is

a) 40
b) 540
c) 840
d) 1040

11. The demand curve of an oligopolist is

a) Determinate
b) Indeterminate
c) Circular
d) Vertical

12. Selling outlay is an essential part of which of the following market situation

a) Monopolistic Competition
b) Perfect Competition
c) Monopoly
d) Pure Competition

13. Kinky demand curve model explains the market situation known as _____

a) Pure Oligopoly
b) Collusive oligopoly
c) Differentiated Oligopoly
d) Price rigidity

14. The distinction between a single firm & an Industry vanishes in which of the following market condition

a) Monopoly
b) Perfect competition
c) Monopolistic competition
d) Imperfect competition

15. For price discrimination to be successful, the elasticity of demand for the commodity in the two markets, should be:

a) Same
b) different
c) Constant
d) Zero

16. Abnormal profits exists in the long run only under _____

a) Monopoly
b) Perfect competition
c) Monopolistic competition
d) Oligopoly

17. One of the essential conditions of Perfect competition is _____

a) Product differentiation
b) Many sellers and few buyers
c) Only one price for identical goods at any one time
d) Multiplicity of prices for identical products at any one time

18. Production Possibilities curve is also known as ___

a) Transformation curve
b) Demand Curve
c) Supply Curve
d) Indifference Curve

19. Who has defined Economics as “Science which deals with wealth”

a) J.B.Say
b) Adam Smith
c) Canon
d) A.C.Pigou

20. Which of the following is not feature of capitalistic economy?

a) Right to private property
b) Restriction on consumer’s right to choose
c) Profit motive
d) Freedom of enterprise

21. The term mixed economy denotes

a) Co-existence of consumer and producer’s goods industries in the economy
b) Co existence of private & public sectors in the economy
c) Co existence of urban & rural sectors in the economy
d) Co existence of large & small industries sectors in the economy

22. A firm will close down in the short period, if AR is less than

a) AVC
b) AC
c) MC
d) None

23. The basic reason of considering the Indian Economy as under developed economy is:

a) Wide spread of poverty
b) High growth of population
c) High income inequalities
d) All of these

24. Tourism is an the example of

a) Primary Sector
b) Secondary Sector
c) Tertiary Sector
d) None of the above

25. ____ has highest Literacy rate in India

a) U.P
b) Rajasthan
c) Kerala
d) Haryana

26. Which state has the highest urban population

a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Maharastra
c) Tamilnadu
d) Rajasthan

27. In rural areas in India, the nature of unemployment is _____

a) Disguised Unemployment
b) Seasonal Unemployment
c) Both a) and b)
d) Voluntary Unemployment

28. Which of the following poverty eradication scheme is presently operational in India?

a) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
b) Ajeevika
c) Swarn Jayanthi Shahari Rojgar Yojana
d) All of these

29. Petroleum, Oil and Lubricants (POL) constitutes around ____ % of India’s imports bill

a) 32
b) 35
c) 37
d) 39

30. Which of the following is the Correct definition of Micro enterprise according to micro, small and medium enterprise development (MSMED) Act 2006?

a) Upto Rs. 20 lakh investment
b) Upto Rs. 25 lakh investment
c) Upto Rs. 30 lakh investment
d) Upto Rs. 35 lakh investment

31. Plant load factor, a measure of operational efficiency of a thermal plant varies across the regions in India. In which of the following regions it has been lowest in the year 2012-13.

a) Eastern
b) Western
c) Central
d) Southern

32. Food Corporation of India (FCI) is the Nodal Agency for which of the following activities relating to food management in the country?

a) Procurement
b) Distribution
c) Storage
d) All of the above

33. The annual growth rate of industrial sector has remained at _____ % over 11th plan period

a) 8.2
b) 7.4
c) 8.9
d) 6.8

34. Since adoption of economic liberalisation the share of agriculture in India’s GDP is _____

a) Constant
b) Increasing
c) Decreasing
d) None of these

35. R.B.I Nationalised in ___

a) 1949
b) 1969
c) 1935
d) 1991

36. Which of the following is not the function of R.B.I

a) Banker’s Bank
b) Issue of currency.
c) Regulation of Foreign Trade
d) Custodian of Forex Reserves

37. Which one of the following statement defines the term Reverse Repo Rate?

a) The Rate at which commercial banks borrow money from RBI
b) The Rate at which RBI borrows from other banks
c) The Rate at which commercial banks borrow from each other
d) None of these

38. Monetary policy in India is regulated by

a) Ministry of finance
b) RBI
c) Planning Commission
d) SEBI

39. Which of the following bank enforces the provisions of foreign exchange management act in India?

a) Central Bank of India
b) State Bank of India
c) ICICI
d) Reserve bank of India

40. Which of the following is not a quantitative method of credit control

a) Bank Rate policy
b) Open market operations
c) The Repo Rate
d) Consumer credit regulation

41. Traditionally money has been defined on the basis of its functional aspects. Which one of the following falls under this category

a) Medium of exchange
b) Measure of value
c) A Store of value
d) all of the above

42. Stagflation is _____

a) Inflation with recession
b) Inflation with growth
c) Deflation with growth
d) Deflation followed with inflation

43. Which of the following measures can be used for curbing inflation

a) Monetary measures
b) Fiscal measures
c) Investment Controls
d) All of these

44. Trend of continuous rising prices of factors of production is known as____

a) Demand pull inflation
b) Cost push inflation
c) Stagflation
d) Hyperinflation

45. Which of the following was not immediate cause of 1991 economic crisis

a) Rapid growth of population
b) Severe inflation
c) Expanding Fiscal deficit
d) Rising current account deficit

46. Direct taxes being progressive in nature, it is help to

a) Reduce inequality
b) Reduce poverty
c) Reduce price
d) Reduce poverty and prices

47. In 2003 _____ was passed to reduce the Gross Fiscal fiscal deficit by 0.5% of GDP in each financial year.

a) FRBM Act
b) FERA
c) FEMA
d) FEPA

48. Adverse balance of payments can be corrected through

a) Devaluation of currency
b) Import Substitution
c) Vigorous exports
d) All of these

49. ______ means integrating the global economy with the world economy

a) Globalisation
b) Privalisation
c) Disinvestment
d) Liberalisation

50. As a consequence of economic reforms, the MRTP Act 1969 was replaced by competition Act in year ______

a) 2001
b) 2002
c) 2003
d) 2004

Part B - Quantitative Aptitude

53. If (125)150 = (25x)50 then the value of x will be

a) 35
b) 45
c) 25
d) 5

a) y
b) -1
c) 1
d) None

55. In a class of 50 students 35 opted for Maths, 37 opted for commerce. The number of such students who opted for both maths and commerce is

a) 13
b) 15
c) 22
d) 28

(Paper) CA-CPT Previous Year Question Paper "June - 2014",set-1

(Paper) CA-CPT Previous Year Question Paper "June - 2014"

Session - 1

Part A - Fundamentals of Accounting

1. Which of the following is wrong?

a) All real and personal accounts are transferred to balance sheet
b) Nominal accounts are transferred to P & L account
c) Each account is opened separately in ledger
d) Rent is a personal account, outstanding rent is nominal account

2. In Journal Entries which pertain to outstanding entries, prepaid entries, depreciation entries are called

a) Adjustment Entries
b) Rectification Entries
c) Transfer Entries
d) closing Entries

3. In a three column cash book the discount columns are

a) Totalled but not adjusted
b) Totalled and adjusted
c) Totalled but not balanced
d) None of the above

4. Cash Book O.D. Balance Rs. 2,000. It was found that cheques of Rs. 100, Rs. 150, Rs. 175 which are issued but not presented till the date and the cheque of Rs. 600 deposited but have not been cleared, then O.D. Balance as per pass book is :

a) Rs. 2150
b) Rs. 2175
c) Rs. 1475
d) Rs. 1925

5. Bank Balance O.D. as per pass book Rs. 26,500. Calculate balance as per cash book is

1) Cheques deposited for Rs. 4700 but not collected
2) Cheques issued for Rs. 11,000 but not presented
3) Bill discounted and dishonoured Rs. 4000, and Bank paid noting charges Rs. 200

a) Rs.28600 O.D
b) Rs.16000 O.D
c) Rs.24000 O.D
d) Rs.28500 O.D

6. Agreement of Trial balance is not a ___ proof of accuracy

a) Submissive
b) Inclusive
c) Exhaustive
d) Conclusive

7. Capital- Rs. 2,00,000 Interest paid- Rs. 2310
Debtors- Rs. 15,200 Discount allowed- Rs. 820
Creditors-Rs.12,960 Discount received-Rs. 1030
Purchases- Rs. 92,670 Rent - Rs. 14,670
Sales- Rs. 1,16,850 Loan - Rs. 12,060
Opening stock – Rs. 56,000
Sales returns – Rs. 27,430
Debit Total of Trial Balance will be

a) Rs. 2,09,000
b) Rs. 2,09,100
c) Rs. 2,10,000
d) None

8. From the following information find the amount to be debited to P & L A/c for the period ending 31-03-2014. Provision for
doubtful debts -
Rs. 800 (on 01-04-2013)
Debtors on 31-03-2014 - Rs. 40,000
Bad debts - Rs. 2,000
Bad debts to be written off and provision for doubtful debts is to be created @ 5% on debtors

a) Rs. 3100
b) Rs. 4000
c) Rs. 3200
d) Rs. 3900

9. Opening Stock Rs.30,000,
Cost of goods available for sale Rs. 1,60,000,
Sales were Rs. 1,60,000.
Gross profit on sales is 30%
Calculate closing stock.

a) Nil
b) Rs. 48,000
c) Rs. 98,000
d) None of the above

10. By products are generally valued at __ when the cost of by products is not directly traceable.

a) Cost of main products
b) N.R.V.
c) Cost of main product or N.R.V. which ever is lower
d) None of these

11. The purpose of Accommodation bill

a) To facilitate trade transmission
b) To finance the actual purchases & sales
c) When both parties are in need of funds
d) None of these

12. A draws a bill for Rs. 20,000 on ‘B’. ‘B’ Accepts for 2 months. After 1 month ‘B’ paid the bill amount @9%. Journal entry in the Books of ‘B’ will be

a) Bank A/c Dr.20,000
To Bills payable A/c 20,000

b) Bank A/c Dr.20,000
To Bills payable A/c 19,850
To Discount A/c 150

c) Bills payable A/c Dr. 20,000
To Bank A/c 20,000

d) Bills payable A/c Dr.20,000
To Discount A/c 150
To Bank A/c 19,850

13. Promissory note features

1) Must be stamped
2) Payee must sign
3) Conditional undertaking
4) Certain amount
5) Not transferable to bearer

a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,4,5
c) All of the above
d) None of these

14. In the absence of agreement, the loss of goods in consignee godown is borne by

a) Consignor
b) Consignee
c) Both a & b
d) Insurance Company

15. Goods sent on consignment for Rs.50,000. During transit 1/10th of goods were destroyed by fire. Again 1/9th of goods received by consignee were destroyed by fire in godown. Half of the remaining goods were sold for Rs.30,000. Freight & insurance paid by consignor Rs.2,500 and Rs.1500 respectively. Calculate closing Stock.

a) Rs.24,000
b) Rs.21,600
c) Rs.20,000
d) None

16. Yogam consigned cost of goods of Rs. 1,00,000 at an invoice price of 20% above cost. Consignee is entitled to 5% commission on sales up to Invoice price, 20% on sales which exceeds invoice price, 2% delcredre commission on credit sales. He sold 25% of goods for cash for Rs. 40,000 and 50% of goods on credit for Rs. 70,000, 10% of goods taken by consignee. Calculate commission?

a) Rs. 10,500
b) Rs.9900
c) Rs.10,200
d) none

17. In case of Joint Venture business, method of Accounting to be followed and decided by

a) Separate Act for J.V.
b) Accounting Standard
c) Co-venturer as per their convenience
d) ICAI

18. In case of purchase of machinery in joint venture through joint bank A/c, while separate set of books is maintained. Which of the following is the correct entry.

a) Debit machinery, credit joint bank A/c
b) Debit machinery, credit joint venture A/c
c) Debit Joint venture, credit joint bank A/c
d) Debit Joint venture A/c, Credit machinery A/c

19. ‘A’ and ‘B’ enter into a joint venture business ‘A’ purchased goods worth Rs. 30,000 and ‘B’ sold for Rs. 40,000. ‘A’ is entitled to 1%commission on purchases and ‘B’ is entitled to 5% commission on sales. The profit on venture to be shared by A & B is (The profit sharing ratio is 2:1)

a) Rs. 4000 : Rs. 2000
b) Rs. 5133 : Rs. 2567
c) Rs. 5000 : Rs. 2500
d) Rs. 4200 : Rs. 2100

20. Rohan Ltd is in the business of extracting coal from mines. It should charge depreciation as per _____ method.

a) Sinking fund
b) Annuity
c) Production units
d) Depletion method

21. Cost of machine is Rs.1,00,000 Scrap value Rs. 10,000 and life is 4 years. What will be the amount of depreciation in 3rd year according to sum of years digits method

a) Rs.40,000
b) Rs.27,000
c) Rs.9,000
d) Rs.18,000

22. A Trader followed WDV method of depreciation, the book value of Asset after 4 years is 24% of original cost. Find rate of depreciation.

a) 24%
b) 26%
c) 32 %
d) 30%

23. Loss on sale of machinery is credited to __ account.

a) Machinery A/c
b) Purchase A/c
c) Profit & Loss A/c
d) None

24. A machine purchased for Rs. 2,50,000 on 1.1.2010. It can produce 30,000 units during its useful life, its estimated scrap value is Rs. 10,000. The pattern of production over the next 4 years is as follows 2010 – 6250 units, 2011-2275 units, 2012-12,000 units, 2013-3452 units, the WDV of the machine after 3rd year will be

a) Rs. 85,800
b) Rs. 1,54,200
c) Rs. 58,158
d) Rs. 1,91,816.

25. After rectification of the following errors, effect on Net profit will be

i) A cheque dishonoured Rs.3,100 debited to discount A/c
ii) Sales book (undercast) short by Rs.23,000
iii) A customer returned goods of value of Rs.1,200, included in stock but not recorded

a) Increased by Rs. 24,900
b) Decreased by Rs. 24,900
c) Increased by Rs. 23,700
d) No change

26. The following are the errors committed while the entries are posted in ledger.

1) Errors of Principle
2) Errors of commission.
3) Errors of Partial omission
4) Errors of complete omission.

a) 1,2,3,4
b) 2,3,4
c) 1,2,4
d) 1,3,4

27. InCase of insufficient profits i.e., profits less than interest on capital then the profits are distributed in :

a) Profit sharing ratio
b) Capital ratio
c) Not distributed
d) None

28. The assets which were earlier revalued upward and now revalued downward, to the extent of earlier upward revaluation amount should be.

a) Credited to Revaluation Reserve A/c
b) Debited to Revaluation Reserve A/c
c) Credited to P&L A/c
d) Debited to P&L A/c

29. A, B are partners sharing profit & losses in the ratio of 5 : 3. ‘C’ admitted as a new partner for 1/5th share and his capital is Rs. 1,20,000 & goodwill Rs. 60,000 Capitals of A, B & C were Rs/-

a) 3,00,000 : 1,20,000 : 1,80,000
b) 3,00,000 : 1,80,000 : 1,20,000
c) 3,00,000 : 1,80,000 : 1,80,000
d) 3,00,000 : 1,20,000 : 1,20,000

30. At the time of admission the unrecorded investments Rs. 30,000 should be treated, the adjustment entry will be

a) Unrecorded investment A/c Dr. 30,000
To Revaluation 30,000

b) Revaluation A/c Dr. 30,000
To Unrecorded Investment A/c 30,000

c) Partners capital A/c Dr. 30,000
To unrecorded Investment A/c 30,000

d) Unrecorded Investment A/c Dr.30,000
To Partners capital A/c 30,000

31. Kapur and sharma are partners in partnership firm. Calculate the interest on drawings of kapur and sharma @ 10% p.a. for the year ending on 31st December 2013. Kapur withdrew Rs. 2,000/- per month in the beginning where as sharma withdrew same amount at the end of every month

a) Kapur Rs. 2,400, sharma Rs. 2,400
b) Kapur Rs. 1,100, sharma Rs. 1,300
c) Kapur Rs. 1,200, sharma Rs. 1,200
d) Kapur Rs. 1,300, sharma Rs. 1,100

32. Neeraj & Gopi are partners with Rs.5,00,000 capital each. They admitted champak for 1/4th share with Rs.8,00,000 capital. The P & L A/c credit balance is Rs.4,00,000. Find the amount of hidden goodwill

a) Rs.10,00,000
b) Rs.12,00,000
c) Rs.8,00,000
d) Rs.16,00,000

33. Angola & Bangola sharing profits 2 : 3, Mangola joined the firm. Angola gave 1/3rd of his share, Bangola gave 1/4th of his share. what is new profit sharing ratio?

a) 17:27:37
b) 16:27:17
c) 17:27:17
d) None

34. When goodwill is withdrawn by the partners ___ account is credited.

a) Cash
b) Partners capital A/c
c) Partners loan a/c
d) Goodwill A/c

35. A & B are in partnership sharing profits & losses in the proportion of 3:1 respectively. On 1-4-2013, they admitted ‘c’ into partnership on the following terms.

i) ‘C’ is to purchase 1/3rd of the goodwill for Rs.2000/- by paying cash
ii) future profits & losses are to be shared by A, B & C equally

Set out the entry to the above arrangement in the firm journal

a) Cash/Bank A/c Dr.2000
To ‘A’ s capital A/c 2000

b) Cash/Bank A/c Dr.2000
‘B’ s capital A/c Dr. 500
To ‘A’s capital A/c 2500

c) Cash/Bank A/c Dr.2000
To Goodwill A/c 2000

d) Cash/Bank A/c Dr.2000
To ‘A’s capital A/c 1500
To ‘B’s capital A/c 500

36. The maximum number of partners is mentioned in

a) Companies Act
b) Partnership Act
c) Limited Partnership Act
d) None

37. As per companies Act 1956 application money more than___ % of nominal value of the share and as per SEBI guidelines application money atleast __ % of issue price

a) 5 %, 25%
b) 25%, 25%
c) 5%, 5%
d) 25%, 5%

38. MAR Ltd forfeited 300 shares of Rs. 10/- each fully called up for non payment of final call money of Rs.4/- per share. These shares are subsequently reissued for Rs.12 per share as fully paid up. What amount should be transferred to capital reserve account.

a) Rs. 2,400
b) Rs. 3,000
c) Rs. 1,800
d) Rs. 3,600

39. A company has a subscribed capital of Rs. 80,00,000 in shares of Rs. 100 each. There are no calls in arrears till the final call. The payment on final call was received for 77,500 shares. The amount of calls in arrears Rs. 67,500. Then the amount of final call is

a) Rs. 25
b) Rs. 27
c) Rs. 20
d) Rs. 65.20

40. Zebra Ltd invites applications for 50,000 shares for which 2/- per share is payable on application. Applications received for 80,000 shares and 70,000 shares are allotted on prorata basis. How much application money will be adjusted to allotment, when Mr.Lion who has allotted 200 shares.

a) Rs. 100
b) Rs. 160
c) Rs. 240
d) Rs. 80

41. Ajay Ltd decides to redeem 10,000 preference shares of Rs. 10/- each at 10% premium. Balance in P & L A/c is Rs. 65,000 and securities premium A/c is Rs. 5,000. You are required to calculate the minimum number of equity shares at the rate of Rs. 10/- each at 20% discount

a) 3125
b) 5625
c) 5000
d) None

42. Unless otherwise stated preference shares always deemed to

a) Cumulative, Participating, Convertible
b) Cumulative, Non-Participating, Nonconvertible
c) Non-Cumulative, Participating, NonConvertible
d) Non-Cumulative, Non-Participating, Convertible.

43. When the debentures are issued as collateral security for a loan then such debenture holders are entitled to

a) Interest on the amount of loan
b) Interest on the amount of debenture
c) No Interest amount
d) Either (a) or (b)

44. Which method is exception to non-historical cost methods

a) Adjusted selling price
b) Latest purchase price
c) Standard Cost
d) Weighted average

45. Cost of physical inventory on 15-04-2014 was Rs.3,00,000. Sales amounting to Rs.1,00,000 and purchases worth Rs.50,000 were made between 31-03-2014 to 15-4-2014. Goods are
sold at 20% profit on sales. Value of Inventory as on 31-3-2014 is

a) Rs. 3,50,000
b) Rs. 2,70,000
c) Rs. 3,00,000
d) Rs. 3,30,000

Direction: Question 46-47

46. Average stock Rs. 14,000, closing stock is Rs. 3,000 more than the opening stock, then closing stock is ___

a) Rs. 15,500
b) Rs. 15,000
c) Rs. 12,200
d) Rs. 12,000


47. Which method of valuation is adopted in above table

a) FIFO
b) LIFO
c) Weighted average
d) None

48. Closing stock from above adopted method is

a) Units 200 amount Rs. 2300
b) Units 200 amount Rs. 2000
c) Units 200 amount Rs. 2,600
d) None of these

49. When goods sent on approval, buyer become owner of goods when

a) When he accepts the goods
b) When the time of approval was over
c) When he done any act in respect of getting possession of goods
d) All of these.

(Paper) CA-CPT Previous Year Question Paper "December - 2014", Set-2

(Paper) CA-CPT Previous Year Question Paper "December - 2014"

Session - 2

Part A - General Economics

1. A market structure in which many firms sell product that are similar, but not identical.

a) Monopolistic Competition
b) Monopoly
c) Perfect Competition
d) Oligopoly

2. In inductive method, logic proceeds from __

a) General to Particular
b) Positive to normative
c) Normative to Positive
d) Particular to general.

3. The most important function of an entrepreneur is to _______.

a) Innovate
b) Bear the sense of responsibility
c) Finance
d) Earn Profit.

4. Which among the following in the right formula for price elasticity of demand using Ratio Method

5. Price discrimination will not be profitable if elasticity of demand is___ in different markets.

a) Uniform
b) Different
c) Less
d) Zero

6. In case of Straight Line demand curve meeting two axes, the Price Elasticity of demand at a point where the curve meets x-axis would be

a) 1
b)  (infinity)
c) 0
d) >1

7. Average Cost of Producing 50 units of a Commodity is Rs.250 and fixed cost is Rs.1000. What will be the average fixed cost of producing 100 units of the Commodity?

a) 10
b) 30
c) 20
d) 5

8. Linear Homogeneous Production function is based on ____

a) Increasing Returns to Scale
b) Decreasing Returns to Scale
c) Constant Returns to Scale
d) None.

9. Use the following data to answer following question

Output (0) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Total Cost (TC) 240 330 410 480 540 610 690

The marginal cost of the sixth unit of output is

a) 80
b) 75
c) 133
d) 450

10. Positively sloped (i.e. rising) part of long run Average Cost Curve is due to which of the following _____

a) Constant Returns to Scale
b) Increasing Returns to Scale
c) Diseconomies of Scale
d) Economics of Scale.

11. Elasticity of Supply is greater than one when

a) Proportionate change in price is greater than proportionate change in supply
b) Proportionate change in supply is greater than proportionate change in price
c) Proportionate change in supply is equal to proportionate change in price.
d) All of the above.

12. “The excess of Price which he would be willing to pay rather than go without the thing over that which he actually does pay in the economic measure of his surplus satisfaction” is given by

a) Alfred Marshall
b) Lionel Robbins
c) J.R.Hicks
d) Edge Worth.

13. The firm in a perfectly competitive market is a “price taker”. This designation as a “price taker” is based on the assumption that:

a) The firm has some, but not complete, control over its product price
b) There are so many buyers and sellers in the market that any individual firm cannot affect market.
c) Each firm produces a homogeneous product.
d) There is easy entry into or exit from the market place.

14. The Economy achieves ‘Productive Efficiency’ when:

a) The best quality goods are produced.
b) The highly skillful resources in the country are fully employed.
c) All resources are utilized and goods & services are produced at least cost.
d) None.

15. Kinked demand curve of the Oligopoly indicates

I) If one firm decreases price other firms also decreases the price
II) If one firm increases price other firms also increases the price
III) If one firm decreases the price other firms does not decrease the price.
IV) If one firm increases the price other firms does not increase the price.

a) Only I
b) II and IV
c) I and IV
d) II and III

16. When the price of commodity is Rs.20/- quantity demand is 9 units; and when price is Rs.19, quantity demanded is 10 units. Based on this information, what is marginal revenue resulting from an increase in output from 9 units to 10 units.

a) Rs.20
b) Rs.19
c) Rs.10
d) Rs.1

17. If the quantity demanded of the good increases by 5% when the price another good increases by 20%, then the cross price elasticity of demand between two goods is ___

a) -0.25
b) 0.25
c) -4
d) 4

18. A company produces 10 units of output and incurs Rs.30 per unit of variable cost and Rs.5 per unit of fixed cost. In this case total cost is:

a) Rs.300
b) Rs.35
c) Rs.305
d) Rs.350

19. AFC curve is always _______

a) U-shaped if there is decreasing returns to scale
b) U-shaped if there is increasing returns to scale.
c) Declining when output increases.
d) Intersected by M.C at its minimum point refer back

20. In case of law of variable proportions, diminishing returns occur.

a) When units of a variable input are added to a fixed input and total product falls
b) When units of a variable input are added to a fixed input and marginal product falls
c) When the size of the plant is increased in the long run.
d) When the quantity of the fixed input is increased and returns to the variable input falls.

21. In Long run which of the following is true for a perfect competition

a) Industry is operating at minimum point of AC curve
b) MC is greater than MR
c) AFC is less than AVC
d) Price is less than AC

22. In which year SEZ policy was announced?

a) 1991
b) 1999
c) 2000
d) 2008

23. The share of agriculture in India’s National Income has ____ over the years

a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Remains constant
d) First decreased and then increased.

24. In which year Income tax was first introduced_

a) 1860
b) 1873
c) 1948
d) 1950

25. Which of the following is a type of inflation?

a) Demand pull inflation
b) Cost push inflation
c) Stagflation
d) All of the above

26. Which of the following is not a function of Commercial Banks?

a) Lending of loans
b) Issue of currency
c) Agency Services
d) Receipts of Deposits

27. Special drawing rights were created in 1969 by

a) IMF
b) World Bank
c) WTO
d) RBI

28. In which of the following areas, 100% FDI was not allowed?

a) Drugs and pharmaceuticals
b) Hotels & Tourism
c) Courier Services
d) Railways

29. Which of the following is not a scheme to reduce poverty in India?

a) Swaran Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY)
b) SJSRY (Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana)
c) MGNREGS (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme)
d) SGRY (Sampoorna Grameena Rojgar Yojana)

30. Which among the following functions, money serves in the dynamic sense?

a) As a store of value
b) As a medium of exchange
c) As a unit of account
d) Transforming saving into investment.

31. ____ refers to that portion of total deposits which a commercial bank has to keep with itself in the form of liquid assets.

a) CRR
b) SLR
c) Bank Rate
d) Repo Rate

32. Which among the following pairs is mismatched?

a) National Telecom policy – 2012
b) Electricity act – 2003
c) National policy on skill & development–2009
d) Green Revolution – 1991.

33. Which of the following is mismatch?

a) IBRD – giving short-term loans for development
b) IMF – provides finance to correct disequilibrium in balance of payments
c) RBI – controls credit in India
d) WT0 – generally forbid use of quantitative restrictions on trade.

34. Which of the following is not a part of world bank group?

a) ICSID
b) MIGA
c) IFC
d) ADB

35. Which of the following is incorrect?

a) GNP at market price – Depreciation = NNP market price.
b) GNP at market price – NFIA = GDP market price
c) GNP at market price – Net Indirect Tax = GNP at factor cost.
d) None of these

36. Lending and borrowing operations of commercial banks result in ___ in the country.

a) Capital formation
b) Credit creation
c) Credit control
d) None

37. “Partnership in excellence” programe has been launched by ministry of power to __

a) Remove the obstacle of thermal power plants.
b) Improve the generation of power
c) Improve conditions of coal mining workers
d) Encourage of public private partnership in power sector.

38. Right to children to free and compulsory education Act RTE Act, 2009 has made free education for all children between the age of_

a) 5 – 15
b) 6-18
c) 7-20
d) 6-14

39. Which of the following item will not be included in balance of current account?

a) Balance of unilateral transfers
b) Balance of invisible items
c) Balance of trade
d) External commercial borrowings

40. Liberalisation refers to ___

a) Relaxation of previous government restrictions usually in the areas of social and economic policies.
b) Transferring the assets and service functions from public to private sectors
c) Disposal of public sector units equity in the market.
d) None of these

41. If we closely watch 39 PSUs which had been chosen for disinvestment / privatization during 1991 – 98, we can find that out of them only 3 PSUs posted losses in 1997 – 1998. These include ____.

a) Gas authority of India Ltd., Hindustan Machine tools, Bharat electrical Ltd.,
b) Hindustan cables Ltd., Hindustan copper Ltd., and Hindustan photo films manufacturing Co. Ltd.,
c) Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd., Steel authority of India Ltd., Bharat Heavy Electrical Ltd.,
d) Videsh Sanchar Nigam Ltd., Shipping corporation of India, Indian electro chemical Ltd.,

42. Abolition of intermediates and tenancy reforms are both parts of ______

a) Industrial reforms in India
b) External sector reforms in India
c) Land reforms in India
d) Banking reforms in India

43. If in a population of 1000 people, 400 people are in the labour force, 392 are employed, what is the unemployment rate?

a) 2%
b) 8%
c) 6%
d) 4%

44. Narrow money excludes ______ of the public with the banks while broad money includes it.

a) Demand deposits
b) Time deposits
c) Post office saving deposits
d) Currency in circulation

45. Which of the following is the reason for increase in Birth rate in India?

a) In an agrarian economy, children are considered as assets but not burden because children help in agricultural fields
b) Marriages are almost compulsory and take place at quite young age in India
c) In India, by the age of 50 years, only 5 out of 1,000 in Indian women remain unmarried.
d) All of these

46. Department of posts has launched ___ with the aim of providing fast and reliable postal services to the consumers.

a) Logistic post
b) Project arrow
c) E-Bill post
d) Project areal

47. IDA is a “soft lending arm” of world bank due to_____

a) Provides interest free loans to poor countries
b) Provides loans to developing countries at lower rate of interest
c) Provides short-term loans
d) None of these

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