• Mode of Examination : LAN Based CBT (Computer Based Test) Duration 3 Hours
  • Type of Questions : Multiple Choice Question Number of Questions* 100

(Syllabus) AICTE: Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test (GPAT)

(Syllabus) AICTE: Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test (GPAT)



1. Composition & physical states of matter

(Answer Key) AICTE: Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test (GPAT) : Final Answer Key of GPAT 2020

(Answer Key) AICTE: Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test (GPAT) : Final Answer Key of GPAT 2020

  • Exam Date : 28.01.2020
  • Shift : Second
  • Paper : GPAT2020 




National Council For Hotel Management and Catering Technology (NCHM & CT)

National Council for Hotel Management & Catering Technology (NCHMCT) is an autonomous body under Ministry of Tourism, Government of India. The Council centrally run and regulates academics for B.Sc. Hospitality & Hotel Administration and ten other structured courses of study that are imparted at the affiliated 21 Central Institutes of Hotel Management, 25 State Government Institutes of Hotel Management, 01 Public Sector Undertaking and 24 Private Institutes of Hotel Management. All Institutes follow standardised course curricula prescribed by the Council for different professional programs. 

Quality of education and training provided by the Institutes help students to emerge as professionally  qualified personnel for hospitality and other allied service sectors. The Council has till date trained more than one lakh Hospitality Managers, Executives and other operational personnel. Its alumni from affiliated Institutes occupy key positions in the hospitality industry as well as in allied industry both in India and abroad. 

Career Opportunities for Hospitality Graduates

Global growth and development of tourism have opened up innumerable openings. As a result, the graduating students can look forward to career opportunities as;
➢ Management Trainee in Hotel and allied hospitality industry;
➢ Kitchen Management/Housekeeping Management positions in Hotels after initial stint as trainee;
➢ Flight Kitchens and on-board flight services;
➢ Indian Navy Hospitality services;
➢ Guest/Customer Relation Executive in Hotel and other Service Sectors;
➢ Management Trainee/Executive in international and national fast food chains;
➢ Hospital and Institutional Catering;
➢ Faculty in Hotel Management/Food Craft Institutes;
➢ Marketing/Sales Executive in Hotel and other Service Sectors;
➢ Railway Hospitality and Catering Services;
➢ State Tourism Development Corporations;
➢ Shipping and Cruise lines;
➢ Resort Management;
➢ Self-employment through entrepreneurship and
➢ Multinational companies for their hospitality services.

About 95% of the graduates are employed by Hospitality and other service sectors through on-campus and off-campus recruitment processes. 

Education Qualification :

10+2 system of Senior Secondary examination or its equivalent with English as one of the subjects. Candidate must have passed English as a subject of study (core/elective/functional) in the qualifying examination. Those appearing in 10+2 or equivalent examination can also appear in NCHM JEE 2020 on provisional basis. Provisional admission will stand cancelled if proof of having passed the qualifying examination (10+2 or its equivalent) is not submitted at the time of counselling or at the time of admission or latest by 30.09.2020

The offer of admission is subject to verification of original certificates/documents at the time of admission. If any candidate is found ineligible at a later date even after admission to an Institute, his/her admission will stand cancelled.

Qualifying Examination for Indian Students :

• Plus two level examination in the 10+2 pattern of Senior Secondary education of any recognized Central/State Board, such as Central Board of Secondary Education and Council for Indian School Certificate Examination or State Boards of Secondary Education.
• Intermediate or two-year Pre-University Examination conducted by a recognized Board/ University.
• General Certificate Education (GCE) Examination (London/Cambridge/Sri Lanka) at the Advanced (A) level.
• High School Certificate Examination of the Cambridge University.
• Any Public School/Board/University Examination in India or in a foreign country recognized by the Association of Indian Universities as equivalent to 10+2 pattern of Senior Secondary education.
• H.S.C. Vocational Examination approved by NCVT and SCVT of concerned state.
• Senior Secondary School Examination conducted by the National Open School with a minimum of five subjects including English as one of the Subjects, result of which should be available up to 30.09.2020

Age Limit

For candidates from General and OBC categories, upper age limit is 25 years as on 01.07.2020. Candidates born on or after July 01, 1995 are eligible. In the case of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe candidates, upper age limit is 28 years as on 01.07.2020. That is SC/ST candidates born on or after July 01, 1992 are eligible. Upper age limit for Physically Challenged candidates shall be reckoned as per the category he/she belongs to i.e. General/EWS/SC/ST/OBC. Date of birth as recorded in the Secondary Education Board/Pre-University Certificate shall be the authentic proof that will be accepted. At the time of counseling, this certificate must be produced in original as a proof of age, failing which the candidate will not be considered for Counselling/admission.   

Test Pattern



No. of Questions



Numerical Ability and Analytical Aptitude





03.00 hrs.


Reasoning and Logical Deduction



General Knowledge & Current Affairs



English Language



Aptitude for Service Sector




Marking Scheme for MCQs

• Numerical Ability and Analytical Aptitude

• Reasoning and Logical Deduction

• General Knowledge & Current Affairs

• English Language

• Aptitude for Service Sector

Correct Answer

Four mark (+4)

Incorrect Answer

Minus one mark (-1)


for Review

No mark (0)

At the test centre, each candidate will be seated at a desk with a computer terminal and he/she will be provided with rough papers for calculations and a Pen/Pencil. After the test, candidate must leave the rough papers at the desk. Rough work cannot be done on any other paper/sheet, as nothing will be allowed inside the examination room/hall. 

How to Apply :

Step-1: Register for online application form and note down system generated application number. The candidate should supply the details while filling the online Application Form and is also required to create PASSWORD and choose Security question and enter his/her Answer. After successful submission of the personal details, Application number will be generated and it will be used to complete the remaining steps of the application form and will also be required for all future correspondence. For subsequently logins, candidate will be able to login directly with the respective system generated Application Number and created Password. 

Step-2: Complete the Application Form : Candidate can login with the system generated Application Number and created Password for completing the Application Form.

Step-3: Upload Scanned Images of candidate photograph and candidate signature.
1. Scanned photograph and Signature should be in JPG/JPEG format.
2. Size of scanned photograph should be between 10kb to 200 kb.
3. Size of scanned signature should be between 4 kb to 30 kb.
4. The photograph should be coloured or black/white (but clear contrast).

Note: Upload the correct Photograph and Signature as the facility for correction in images will not be given.

Step-4: Payment by Debit/Credit Card/ Net Banking/ PayTM/ UPI: The candidate has to select Debit/Credit Card/Net Banking/ PayTM or UPI option to pay the application fee and follow the online instruction to complete the payment of fee. After successful payment, candidate will be able to print the confirmation Page. In case the confirmation page is not generated after payment of fee then the transaction will be cancelled and amount will be refunded to the candidate’s account. However, the candidate has to make another transaction, in case the Confirmation Page is not generated. 

Step-5: Choose the city for giving the examination NCHM JEE-2020 




On-line submission of Applications Form

From 01.01.2020 to 20.03.2020

Date for the uploading of scanned images of Candidate’s Photograph and Signature

From 01.01.2020 to 20.03.2020

Date for the successful final transaction of Fee

From 01.01.2020 to 21.03.2020

Through Credit/ Debit Card/UPI and PayTM Through Net Banking upto 11.50 p.m.

From 01.01.2020 to 21.03.2020


Fee payable for NCHM JEE 2020

General/ Non Creamy Layer OBC








Date of Examination

25th   April, 2020(Saturday)

Time of Examination

09.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

Printing of Admit Cards from NTA’s Website

From 7th April, 2020

Display of recorded responses and Answer Keys for inviting challenges on NTA’s website

Date shall be displayed on the

NTA’s Website

Declaration of Result on NTA’s website

By 15th   May, 2020

Click Here for official Notification

## How to Prepare Numerical Ability for NIACL Assistant Exam

How to Prepare Numerical Ability for NIACL Assistant Exam

The New India Assurance Company Limited (NIACL) is one of the country's largest insurance firms. It employs a huge number of people and has a number of branches both inside and outside the country. NIACL, as everyone knows, hires qualified people for numerous positions throughout the year. The NIACL Cadre III Assistant position, on the other hand, is one of the most well-known.

(Notification) IBPS PO/MT-VIII - 2018

IBPS logo

(Notification) IBPS PO/MT-VIII - 2018

The online examination (Preliminary and Main) for the next Common Recruitment Process for selection of personnel for Probationary Officer/ Management Trainee posts in the Participating Organisations is tentatively scheduled in October / November 2018.


  1. Allahabad Bank

  2. Canara Bank

(Download) GATE -2018 : Exam Paper and Answer Key Textile Engineering and Fibre Science (TF)

(Download) GATE -2018 : Exam Paper and Answer Key

Textile Engineering and Fibre Science (TF)

General Aptitude :

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 “When she fell down the _______, she received many _______ but little help.” The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are
(A) stairs, stares

(B) stairs, stairs
(C) stares, stairs

(D) stares, stares

Q.2 “In spite of being warned repeatedly, he failed to correct his _________ behaviour.” The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is
(A) rational

(B) reasonable

(C) errant

(D) good

Q.4 The area of an equilateral triangle is √3. What is the perimeter of the triangle?
(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 6

(D) 8

Q.5 Arrange the following three-dimensional objects in the descending order of their volumes:

(i) A cuboid with dimensions 10 cm, 8 cm and 6 cm
(ii) A cube of side 8 cm
(iii) A cylinder with base radius 7 cm and height 7 cm
(iv) A sphere of radius 7 cm

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(C) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
(D) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 An automobile travels from city A to city B and returns to city A by the same route. The speed of the vehicle during the onward and return journeys were constant at 60 km/h and 90 km/h, respectively. What is the average speed in km/h for the entire journey?
(A) 72

(B) 73

(C) 74

(D) 75

Q.7 A set of 4 parallel lines intersect with another set of 5 parallel lines. How many parallelograms are formed?
(A) 20

(B) 48

(C) 60

(D) 72

Q.8 To pass a test, a candidate needs to answer at least 2 out of 3 questions correctly. A total of 6,30,000 candidates appeared for the test. Question A was correctly answered by 3,30,000 candidates. Question B was answered correctly by 2,50,000 candidates. Question C was answered correctly by 2,60,000 candidates. Both questions A and B were answered correctly by 1,00,000 candidates. Both questions B and C were answered correctly by 90,000 candidates. Both questions A and C were answered correctly by 80,000 candidates. If the number of students answering all questions correctly is the same as the number answering none, how many candidates failed to clear the test?
(A) 30,000

(B) 2,70,000

(C) 3,90,000

(D) 4,20,000

Q.9 If x2 + x − 1 = 0 what is the value of x4 + 1/x?

(A) 1

(B) 5

(C) 7

(D) 9

Q.10 In a detailed study of annual crow births in India, it was found that there was relatively no growth during the period 2002 to 2004 and a sudden spike from 2004 to 2005. In another unrelated study, it was found that the revenue from cracker sales in India which remained fairly flat from 2002 to 2004, saw a sudden spike in 2005 before declining again in 2006. The solid line in the graph below refers to annual sale of crackers and the dashed line refers to the annual crow births in India. Choose the most appropriate inference from the above data.

(A) There is a strong correlation between crow birth and cracker sales.
(B) Cracker usage increases crow birth rate.
(C) If cracker sale declines, crow birth will decline.
(D) Increased birth rate of crows will cause an increase in the sale of crackers.

Click Here to Download full Question Paper

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(Download) GATE -2018 : Exam Paper and Answer Key Production and Industrial Engineering (PI)

(Download) GATE -2018 : Exam Paper and Answer Key

Production and Industrial Engineering (PI)

General Aptitude :

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 “The dress _________ her so well that they all immediately _________ her on her appearance.” The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are
(A) complemented, complemented

(B) complimented, complemented
(C) complimented, complimented

(D) complemented, complimented

Q.2 “The judge’s standing in the legal community, though shaken by false allegations of wrongdoing, remained _________.” The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is
(A) undiminished

(B) damaged

(C) illegal

(D) uncertain

Q.3 Find the missing group of letters in the following series:
BC, FGH, LMNO, _____




Q.4 The perimeters of a circle, a square and an equilateral triangle are equal. Which one of the following statements is true?
(A) The circle has the largest area.
(B) The square has the largest area.
(C) The equilateral triangle has the largest area.
(D) All the three shapes have the same area.

(A) -1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 3

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 Forty students watched films A, B and C over a week. Each student watched either only one film or all three. Thirteen students watched film A, sixteen students watched film B and nineteen students watched film C. How many students watched all three films?
(A) 0

(B) 2

(C) 4

(D) 8

Q.7 A wire would enclose an area of 1936 m2, if it is bent into a square. The wire is cut into two pieces. The longer piece is thrice as long as the shorter piece. The long and the short pieces are bent into a square and a circle, respectively. Which of the following choices is closest to the sum of the areas enclosed by the two pieces in square meters?
(A) 1096

(B) 1111

(C) 1243

(D) 2486

Q.8 A contract is to be completed in 52 days and 125 identical robots were employed, each operational for 7 hours a day. After 39 days, five-seventh of the work was completed. How many additional robots would be required to complete the work on time, if each robot is now operational for 8 hours a day?
(A) 50

(B) 89

(C) 146

(D) 175

Q.9 A house has a number which needs to be identified. The following three statements are given that can help in identifying the house number.

i. If the house number is a multiple of 3, then it is a number from 50 to 59.
ii. If the house number is NOT a multiple of 4, then it is a number from 60 to 69.
iii. If the house number is NOT a multiple of 6, then it is a number from 70 to 79.

What is the house number?
(A) 54

(B) 65

(C) 66

(D) 76

Q.10 An unbiased coin is tossed six times in a row and four different such trials are conducted.One trial implies six tosses of the coin. If H stands for head and T stands for tail, the
following are the observations from the four trials:

(1) HTHTHT (2) TTHHHT (3) HTTHHT (4) HHHT__ __.

Which statement describing the last two coin tosses of the fourth trial has the highest probability of being correct?
(A) Two T will occur.
(B) One H and one T will occur.
(C) Two H will occur.
(D) One H will be followed by one T.

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