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(Download) Haryana BSNL Junior Engineer (JE) erstwhile TTA Exam Paper - 2013 (held on 14th July 2013)

(Download) Haryana BSNL Junior Engineer (JE) erstwhile TTA Exam Paper - 2013 (held on 14th July 2013)

Exam Name: Haryana BSNL Junior Engineer (JE) erstwhile TTA Exam

Exam Date: 14th July 2013

Subjects:

  • General Ability Test
  • Basic Engineering
  • Specialisation

(Download) BSNL Junior Engineer (JE) erstwhile TTA Exam Paper - 2

(Download) BSNL Junior Engineer (JE) erstwhile TTA Exam Paper - 2

Exam Name: BSNL Junior Engineer (JE) erstwhile TTA Exam

Paper: 2

Subjects:

  • General Ability Test
  • Basic Engineering
  • Specialisation

(Download) BSNL Junior Engineer (JE) erstwhile TTA Exam Paper - 1

(Download) BSNL Junior Engineer (JE) erstwhile TTA Exam Paper - 1

Exam Name: BSNL Junior Engineer (JE) erstwhile TTA Exam

Paper: 1

Subjects:

  • General Ability Test
  • Basic Engineering
  • Specialisation

(Download) Maharashtra BSNL Junior Engineer (JE) erstwhile TTA Exam Paper - 2008

(Download) Maharashtra BSNL Junior Engineer (JE) erstwhile TTA Exam Paper - 2008

Exam Name: Maharashtra BSNL Junior Engineer (JE) erstwhile TTA Exam

Year: 2008

Subjects:

  • General Ability Test
  • Basic Engineering
  • Specialisation

(Download) BSNL Junior Engineer (JE) erstwhile TTA Exam Paper - 2008

(Download) BSNL Junior Engineer (JE) erstwhile TTA Exam Paper - 2008

Exam Name: BSNL Junior Engineer (JE) erstwhile TTA Exam

Year: 2008

Subjects:

  • General Ability Test
  • Basic Engineering
  • Specialisation

(Paper) CA-CPT Previous Year Question Paper "December - 2016"

(Paper) CA-CPT Previous Year Question Paper "December - 2016"

Session - 2

PART A – GENERAL ECONOMICS

1. Conspicuous goods are also called as:

  • a. Veblen
  • b. Snob
  • c. Prestigious
  • d. All of the above

2. A relative price is _____

  • a. Price expressed in terms of money
  • b. What you get paid for baby sitting your cousin
  • c. The ratio of one money price to another
  • d. Equal to a money price

3. In case of a straight line demand curve meeting the two axes, the price elasticity of demand at the Y-axis of the line would be:

  • a. Infinity
  • b. Equal to 1
  • c. Zero
  • d. Less than 1

4. If income increases by 10% and demand increases by 5%, then income elasticity of demand is:

  • a. +0.5
  • b. -0.5
  • c. +0.05
  • d. -0.05

5. Supply is a ___ concept.

  • a. Flow
  • b. Stock
  • c. Both Flow & Stock
  • d. Qualitative

6. Elasticity of supply refers to to the percentage change in supply divided by ____

  • a. Percentage change in income
  • b. Percentage change in price
  • c. Percentage change in demand
  • d. Percentage change in cost

7. Concept of consumer surplus is based on :

  • a. Law of Diminshing Marginal utility
  • b. Law of Equi-Marginal utility
  • c. Law of Diminshing returns
  • d. Engel’s law

8. which among the following is not a characterstic of land?

  • a. Land is an active factor
  • b. Its power is indestructible
  • c. Variety of uses
  • d. Its supply is limited

9. Which is not a characteristic of labour?

  • a. Labour is not separable from labourer
  • b. Labour is not a mobile factor
  • c. Labour is not a mobile factor
  • d. Labour is an active factor

10. Average Product raises due to an increase in variable input, then Marginal Product is :

  • a. More than AP
  • b. Less than AP
  • c. Equal to AP
  • d. None

11. Suppose the first four units of a variable input generate corresponding total outputs of 150, 200, 350 and 550. The marginal product of the third unit of input is:

  • a. 50
  • b. 100
  • c. 150
  • d. 200

12. Average cost of Producing 50 units of a Commodity is Rs 250 & fixed cost is Rs. 1000 . What will be the average fixed cost of producing 100 units of the Commodity?

  • a. 10
  • b. 30
  • c. 20
  • d. 5

13. A firm’s average fixed cost is Rs. 20 at 6 units of output. What will it be at 4 units of output?

  • a. 60
  • b. 30
  • c. 40
  • d. 20

14. If TVC = 100, TFC = 400, then calculate ATC at 5 units.

  • a. 280
  • b. 250
  • c. 150
  • d. 300

15. The market for ultimate consumers is known as _____

  • a. Whole sale market
  • b. Retail market
  • c. Unregulated market
  • d. Regiulated market

16. In a perfect competition, who set the prices :

  • a. Buyers
  • b. Sellers
  • c. Both buyers and sellers
  • d. Government

17. Average revenue rs also known as?

  • a. Supply curve
  • b. Demand curve
  • c. Marginal revenue
  • d. Average cost

18. The price discrimination under monopoly will be possible under which of the following coditions?

  • a. The seller has no control over the supply of his product
  • b. The market has the same conditions all over
  • c. The price elasticity of demand is different in different markets
  • d. The price elasticity of demand is uniform

19. Which of the following markets has the concept of group equilibrium in long – run?

  • a. Monopoly
  • b. Perfect competition
  • c. Monopolistic competition
  • d. Oligopoly

20. Which is the first order condition for the profit of a firm to be maximum?

  • a. AC= MR
  • b. MC= MR
  • c. MR=AR
  • d. AC=AR

21. Which of the following is false regarding Monopoly?

  • a. Unique Product
  • b. Unique Product
  • c. Single Seller
  • d. None of the above

22. Which of the following is another name of Production possibilities curve?

  • a. Deamand curve
  • b. Indifference curve
  • c. Transformation curve
  • d. Supply curve

23. Freedom of choice is an advantage of:

  • a. Capitalist economy
  • b. Mixed economy
  • c. Socialist economy
  • d. Communist economy

24. Who among the following gave the definition of Economics as “Science which deals with wealth”?

  • a. Frachild
  • b. A.C Pigou
  • c. Adam Smith
  • d. J.B. Say

25. Lionel Robbins said the following except:

  • a. Scarce means
  • b. Limited ends
  • c. Alternative Uses
  • d. Economics is science

26. In which economic system all the means of production are owned and controlled by private individuals for profit?

  • a. Socialism
  • b. Mixed economy
  • c. Mixed economy
  • d. Communism

27. Which of the following is not a cause of under – developed country?

  • a. Unemployment & poverty
  • b. Over population
  • c. Income inequalities
  • d. Dominance of mass consumption

28. In the theory of demographic transition in the last stage:

  • a. Birth rate rises, death rate rises.
  • b. Birth rate rises, death rate falls
  • c. Birth rate falls, death rate rises.
  • d. Birth rate falls, death rate falls

29. _____ Unemployment is caused by decline in demand.

  • a. Structural
  • b. Technological
  • c. Disguised
  • d. Chronic

30. Work force refers to that part of:

  • a. Labour force which is employed
  • b. Population which is unemployed
  • c. Population which is forced to work
  • d. Labour force which is unemployed

31. Right of children to free and compulsory education Act {RTE Act) 2009, has made free education for all children between the age of ______ fundamental right.

  • a. 5 and 14 years
  • b. 6 and 14 years
  • c. 7 and 14 years
  • d. 8 and 14 years

32. On the basis of end use, industries are classified into:

  • a. Consumer Goods, Free Goods, Large scale industries
  • b. Intermediate Goods, Consumer goods, Small scale industries
  • c. Capital Goods, Basic Goods, Intermediate Goods
  • d. consumer Goods, Large scale industries

33. ______ is the apex bank for agriculture credit in India.

  • a. RBI
  • b. SIDBI
  • c. NABARD
  • d. ICICI

34. BPO stands for _____

  • a. Bharat Petroleum Organizatio
  • b. Business Process Outsourcing
  • c. Big Portfolio Outstanding
  • d. Business Profit Organization

35. Who is called the ‘Bank of Issue’?

  • a. RBI
  • b. SBI
  • c. IDBI
  • d. ICICI

36. ______ is the official minimum rate at which central bank of a country is prepared to rediscount approved bills held by commercial banks.

  • a. Repo rate
  • b. Reverse repo rate
  • c. Bank rate
  • d. CRR

37. Profitability ratio of commercial banks has not improved much due to _____

  • a. Low interest on Government borrowings from banks
  • b. Subsidization of credit to priority sector
  • c. Increasing expenditure due to over staffing
  • d. All of the above

38. _____ refers to that portion of total deposits of a commercial bank whichit has to keep with RBI in the form of cash reserves.

  • a. CRR
  • b. SLR
  • c. Bank Rate
  • d. Repo Rate

39. Inflation can be controlled by:

  • a. Fiscal measures
  • b. Monetary measures
  • c. Control of investments
  • d. All of the above

40. Money includes:

  • a. Currencies and demand deposits
  • b. Bonds, government securities
  • c. Equity shares
  • d. All of the above

41. Which committee recommended simplification and rationalization of tax system in India :

  • a. Chelliah
  • b. Bootha lingam
  • c. Both a & b
  • d. Urjit Patel

42. Which of the following is not a direct tax?

  • a. Gift tax
  • b. Corporate income tax
  • c. VAT
  • d. Wealth tax

43. _____ is the difference between total receipts and total expenditure.

  • a. Fiscal deficit
  • b. Budget deficit
  • c. Revenue deficit
  • d. Capital deficit

44. _____ is a systematic record of all the economic transactions between one country and rest of the world.

  • a. Balance of trade.
  • b. Balance of transactions.
  • c. Budget
  • d. Balance of payments

45. Which of the following is not correctly matched:

  • a. Liberalisation – relaxation of previous government restrictions usually in areas of social and economic policies
  • b. Privatisation – the transfer of assets or service functions from public to private ownership
  • c. Disinvestment – disposal of private sector’s unit to public sector
  • d. Globalisation – integrating the domestic economy with the world economy

46. Government has permitted up to ____% Foreign Direct Investment {FDI) by foreign airlines in Indian airline companies.

  • a. 26
  • b. 49
  • c. 51
  • d. 74

47. Per capital income = _____

  • a. NNP is divided by total population
  • b. Population is divided by NNP
  • c. Total capital divided by population
  • d. None

48. Which of the following is not included in domestic territory?

a. Ships and aircrafts operated by1he residents of the country between two or more countries

b. Fishing vessels, oil and natural gas rigs, and floating platforms operated by the residents of the country

c. Embassies, consulates and military establishments of the country located abroad

d. Personal investments by residents in abroad

49.

50.

PART B – QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

51. Given log 2 = 0.3010 and log 3 = 0.4771 then the value of log 24

  • a. 1.3081
  • b. 1.1038
  • c. 1.3801
  • d. 1.8301

52. If 3x = 5y = (75)z then

53. If abc = 2 then the value of

  • a. 1
  • b. 2
  • c. 1/2
  • d. 3/4
  • 3. SETS

54. The number of subsets formed from the letters of the word “ALLAHBAD”.

  • a. 128
  • b. 16
  • c. 32
  • d. None

55. If (x) = 100 x then f-1 (x) =

  • a. x/100
  • b. 1/100x
  • c. 1/100
  • d. None of these

56. f: R→R is defined by f (x)=2x then f is

  • a. One – one and onto
  • b. One – one and into
  • c. Many to one
  • d. One to many

57. 2.353535 ……….=

  • a. 233/99
  • b. 234/99
  • c. 232/99
  • d. 235/99

58. The number of terms of the series needed for the sum of the series 50+45+40+….. becomes zero

  • a. 22
  • b. 21
  • c. 20
  • d. None

59. A person received the salary for the 1st year is Rs. 5,00,000 per year and he received an increment of Rs. 15,000 per year then the sum of the salary he taken in 10 years

  • a. Rs. 56,75,000
  • b. Rs. 72,75,000
  • c. Rs. 63,75,000
  • d. Rs. None of these

60. A triangle formed by the lines y = 0, x + 2y = 3, 2x – y = 1

  • a. Isosceles triangle
  • b. Equilateral triangle
  • c. Right angled triangle
  • d. None of these

61. The inequalities

x1 +2x2 <5,x1 +x2 2>1,x1>0,x2>0 represents the region

62. Particular company produces some articles on a day. The cost of production per article is Rs.2 more than thrice the number of articles and the total cost of production is Rs.800 on a day then the number of articles is

  • a. 16
  • b. 14
  • c. 18
  • d. 15

63.

  • a. 77/98
  • b. 9/7
  • c. 7/9
  • d. 99/77

(Paper) CA-CPT Previous Year Question Paper "December - 2016"

(Paper) CA-CPT Previous Year Question Paper "December - 2016"

Session - 1

PART A – FUNDAMENTALS OF ACCOUNTING

1. Out of the following statements, Identity the wrong statement.

a. Real & Personal A/c’s are transferred to Balance Sheet
b. Nominal A/e’s are transfer to Profit and Loss A/c
c. Cash A/c is not opened seperately in the ledger
d. Rent A/c is a Personal A/c and Outstandig Rent A/c is a Nominal A/c

2. List price of the goods purchased= Rs.60,000 Cash paid = Rs.45,000 {After receiving a cash discount of Rs.9,000). Trade discount= ?

a. 10%
b. 7.5 %
c. 15%
d. 25%

3. When the two aspects of a transaction are posted in the Cash Book itself, such an entry is called as _______

a. Double Entry
b. Debit Entry
c. Single Entry
d. Contra Entry

4. OD balance as per pass book is Rs. 2175/- Cheques of Rs.100, Rs.175 and Rs.150 are issued, but not yet presented for payment. A Cheque of Rs.600 is deposited in bank but not yet cleared. Find out the OD balance as per cash book.

a. Rs. 2,000
b. Rs.2,150
c. Rs.1,475
d. Rs.1,925

5. Trial Balance shows arithmetical accuracy of ledger accounts, but it is not a _____ proof of accuracy.

a. Conclusive
b. Exclusive
c. Submissive
d. Inclusive

6. Which of the following errors are not revealed by the trial balance?

a. Wrong amount entered in the book of original entry
b. Wrong amount entered in the sales book
c. Complete omission of a transaction in the book of original entry
d. All of the above

7. Trade Receivables as per Trial Balance = Rs.80,000.

Further information:

1. Bad debts Rs.2,000

2. Provision for discount on Trade Receivables @ 5% will be _____

a. Rs. 4,100
b. Rs. 4,000
c. Rs. 3,900
d. Rs. 4,200

8. Accrued Income appears on the _______

a. Credit side of P & L A/c
b. Debit side of P & L A/c
c. Assets side of Balance Sheet
d. Liabilities side of Balance sheet

9. The Fixed Assets of a company is double of the current assets and half of capital. If the current assets are Rs.3,00,000 and investments Rs.4,oo,ooo, calculate the current liabilities assuming that there are no other items in the balance sheet.

a. Rs. 2,00,000
b. Rs. 1,00,000
c. Rs. 3,00,000
d. Rs. 4,00,000

10. X sold goods to Y at cost+ 10%. Y sold the goods to Z at cost+ 20% profit on sales. Cost of the goods to Xis Rs.50,000. Find out the cost of the goods to z.

a. Rs.66,000
b. Rs.68,750
c. Rs.55,ooo
d. Rs.10,000

11. Entries for prepaid expenses, outstanding expenses and depreciation are called as _____

a. Adjustment Entries
b. Transfer Entries
c. Closing Entries
d. Rectification Entries

12. A Bill of Exchange, before its acceptance is called as _____

a. Draft
b. Bills Receivable
c. Bills Payable
d. None of these

13. If an accommodation bill of Rs.50,000 is discounted for Rs.49,000 and the proceeds are shared by X & Y m the ratio of 1: 4, the discount to be borneby Y is _____

a. Rs. 800
b. Rs. 600
c. Rs. 1,000
d. Rs. 400

14. The nature of Consignment A/c and Consignee’s A/c will be _____

a. Nominal, Personal
b. Real, Nominal
c. Personal, Real
d. Nominal, Real

15. Goods sent on consignment for Rs.50,000. During transit 1/lOth of goods were destroyed by fire. Again 1/91h of goods received by consignee were destroyed by fire in godown. Half of the remaining goods were sold for Rs.30,000. Freight & insurance paid by consignor were Rs.2,500 and Rs.1500 respectively. Calculate closing inventory.

a. Rs. 24,000
b. Rs. 21,600
c. Rs. 20,000
d. None

16. If del-credere commission is allowed for bad debts, consignee will debit the bad debts amount to:

a. Commission Earned A/c
b. Consignor’s A/c
c. Trade receivables {Customers) A/c
d. General Trading A/c

(17 – 18): A & B entered into a joint venture sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 3. A bought goods worth Rs. 36,000 and sent half of the goods to B. B purchased goods worth Rs. 22,500 and sent goods worth Rs.9,000 to A. Goods worth Rs.3,000 were destroyed by fire in the premises of A and the the insurance claim was received at 50%. All the goods were sold at a mark-up of 25% on cost. Expenses incurred by both were Rs.5,000.

17. The sales made by A & B were

a. Rs. 30,000 & Rs. 39,375
b. Rs. 40,500 & Rs. 39,375
c. Rs. 40,500 & Rs. 35,625
d. Rs. 41,250 & Rs. 24,375

18. The profit on joint venture is _____

a. Rs. 7,000
b. Rs. 7,375
c. Rs. 8,875
d. Loss Rs.1,500

19. Out of the following, which is not related to joint ventures

a. Account Sales
b. Account Current
c. Delcredere Commlsslon
d. All of the above

20. The assets which were earlier revalued upward and now revalued downward, to the extent of earlier upward revaluation amount should be.

a. Debited to Revaluation Reserve A/c
b. Debited to Revaluation Reserve A/c
c. Debited to P & L A/c
d. Debited to P & L A/c

21. A Machinery was purchased by X Ltd. on 01- 01-13. Depreciation was charged at 15% p.a. under SLM. With effect from the 2nd year depreciation was charged under WDV method at the same rate. The WDV of the machinery on 01-01-15 was Rs.3,68,475. Find the original cost of the machinery?

a. Rs.5,10,000
b. Rs.5,10,000
c. Rs.6,00,000
d. Rs.4,23,500

22. The cost of machinery is Rs.60,000. Descreciation is charged at 20% p.a. under SLM. In the 2nd year it is decided to change the method and adopt WDV method@ 20% p.a. If the meachine was sold for Rs.30,000 at the end of the 3rd year, calculate the amount of loss.

a. Loss 4,720
b. Loss 4,560
c. Loss 720
d. Loss 560

23. Errors are rectified by using Suspense A/c

a. Before the preparation of Trial Balance
b. After the preparation of Trial Balance
c. Before and after the preparation of Trial Balance
d. None of these

24. After the rectification of following errors, the Net profit will be

i) A cheque of Rs.3,100 was dishonoured and debited to Discount A/c

ii) Goods of the value of Rs.1,200 were returned by a customer and included in stock, but not recorded in the books.

iii) A customer returned goods of value of Rs.1,200, included in stock but not recorded

a. Increased by Rs.24,900
b. Decreased by Rs.24,900
c. Increased by Rs.23,700
d. No change

25. A dealer sends his goods on sale or return basis. He sends goods for Rs.10,000 and records as normal sale. The profit on sale is 20%. The value of physical inventory taken is Rs.50,000. Then the value of closing inventory appearing in the Balance Sheet will be:

a. Rs.50,000
b. Rs.60,000
c. Rs.58,000
d. Rs.58,000

26. Average inventory is Rs.28,000. Closing inventory is Rs.6,000 more than opening inventory. Then find the value of closing inventory.

a. Rs.31,000
b. Rs.28,000
c. Rs.27,000
d. Rs.34,000

27. Value of physical inventory on 15-04-2016 was Rs.3,00,000. Sales amounting to Rs.1,00,000 and purchases worth Rs.50,000 were held between 31-03-2016 to 15-4-2016. Goods are sold at 20% profit on sales. Value of inventory as on 31-3-2016 is

a. Rs. 3,50,000
b. Rs. 2,70,000
c. Rs. 3,00,000
d. Rs. 3,30,000

28. Which method is an exception to non-historical cost methods

a. Adjusted selling price
b. Latest purchase price
c. Standard Cost
d. Weighted average price

29. Opening Inventory= 1,000 units at Rs.4 per unit Purchases= 1,200 units at Rs.5 per unit Sales at the end= 2,000 units at Rs.8 per unit Find out the profit under Weighted Average Price method

a. Rs. 6,000
b. Rs. 6,909
c. Rs. 6,900
d. Rs. 7,000

30. Insurance Claim received for the damage of machinery due to fire is considered as _____

A. Revenue receipt
B. Casual receipt
C. Deferred Revenue receipt
D. None

31. A, B, c & D are equal partners in a firm. They changed the profit sharing ratio as 2: 2: 1: 1. The sacrificed share of ‘D’ is _____

a. 1/24
b. 1/12
c. 1/10
d. 1/6

32. A and B are partners in a firm in the profit sharing ratio of 2:3. C is admitted as a new partner. A sacrificed 1/3rd of his share and B 1/41h of his share in favour of C. Find the new profit sharing ratio of A, B & C.

a. 17: 27: 37
b. 16: 27 : 17
c. 17 : 21 : 27
d. None of these

33. A and B are partners in a firm with capitals of Rs.5,00,000 each. They admit C as a partner with 1/4th share in the profits of the firm. C brings in. Rs.8,00,000 as his share of capital. The Profit and Loss account showed a credit balance of Rs.4,00,000 as on the date of his admission. The value oh hidden good will be.

a. Rs. 14,00,000
b. Rs. 18,00,000
c. Rs. 10,00,000
d. None of these

34. A, 8 and c are partners in a firm, sharing profits & losses in the ratio of 5:3:2 respectively. The balance of capital is Rs.50,000 each for A & Band Rs.40,000 for ‘C’. ‘B’ decides to retire from the firm. The goodwill of the firm is valued at Rs.30,000 and profit on revaluation of assets and liabilities was Rs.5,000. The firm also has a balance in the Reserve A/c at Rs.15,000 on that date. What amount will be payable to ‘B’?

a. Rs.45,000
b. Rs.55,000
c. Rs.65,000
d. Rs.75,000

35. Amount received in excess of surrender value of a joint life policy is shared by the partners in

a. Profit sharing ratio
b. Capitals ratio
c. Equal ratio
d. None

36. A, Band Care partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 7: 5: 4. The profit of the firm for the year ended 31-03-16 was Rs.2,40,000. C died on 30-06-15. What is the share of ‘C’ in the profit?

a. Rs. 15,000
b. Rs. 18,000
c. Rs. 24,000
d. Rs. 20,000

37. A, B & C are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:2:1. B retired. The goodwill of the firm is valued at Rs. 30,000. In what ratio A & C will compensate to B.

a. 8,000: 4,000
b. 4,000: 8,000
c. 20,000: 10,000
d. 10,000: 20,000

38. Interest on partners’ capitals is allowed out of

a. Profits
b. Capitals
c. Goodwill
d. None of the above

39. Akash and Vikas are partners in a firm with capitals of Rs.60,000 each. Srikanth is admitted as a new partner for 1/5th share, who brings in Rs.80,000 as capital. Find the value of inferred goodwill.

a. Rs.2,00,000
b. Rs.2,20,000
c. Rs.4,00,000
d. Rs.3,00,000

40. The subscribed share capital of S Ltd. is Rs.80,00,000, divided into shares of Rs.100 each. There were no calls in arrears till the final call was made. The final call made was paid on 77,500 shares. The calls in arrears amounted to Rs.67,500. The final call money per share = ?

a. Rs.27
b. Rs.25
c. Rs.7.80
d. Rs.20

41. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Issued capital can never be more than authorized capital
b. In case of under subscription, issued capital will be less than the subscribed capital
c. Uncalled capital may be covered into reserve capital
d. Paid up capital is equal to called up capital less calls in arrears

42. Reserve capital means:

a. The part of subscribed uncalled capital
b. Accumulated Profits
c. The part of Capital Reserve
d. The part of Capital Redemption Reserve

43. Zebra Ltd invites applications for 50,000 shares for which Rs. 2 per share is payable on application. Applications are received for 80,000 shares and 50,000 shares are alloted on pro-rata basis to the applicants for 70,000 shares. Calculate the excess application money from X, who was alloted 200 shares.

a. Rs.160
b. Rs.100
c. Rs.300
d. None of the above

44. Maximum number of partners in a firm is mentioned in the

a. Companies Act
b. Partnership Act
c. Income Tax Act
d. None of these

45. Debenture holders are ____ of a company.

a. Vendors
b. Debtors
c. Creditors
d. Owners

46. When debentures are issued as collateral security against any loan, then the holder of such debentures is entitled to

a. Interest only on the amount of loan
b. Interest only on the face value of debentures
c. Interest both on the amount of the loan and on the debentures
d. None of the above

47. If fresh equity shares are issued for the redemption of preference shares which A/c will be credited?

a. Capital Reserve A/c
b. Capital Redemption Reserve A/c
c. Preference Share Capital A/c
d. Equity Share Capital A/c

48. P Ltd. issued 20,000, 12% debentures of Rs.10 each, which are redeemable after 5 years at a premium of 20%. The amount of loss on redemption of debentures to be written off every year= ?

a. Rs. 80,000
b. Rs. 40,000
c. Rs. 10,000
d. Rs. 8,000

49. Preference shares of Rs.10 each, which were issued at pa rare eligible for redemption if they are

a. Paid application and allotment money at Rs.5 per share
b. Fully paid up at Rs.10 per share
c. Paid up at Rs.7.50 per share
d. All of the above

50. AS 22 deals with ______

a. Accounting for taxes on income
b. Intangible assets
c. Impairment of assets
d. Accounting for investments

51. The concept of conservatism when applied to the Balance Sheet results in

a. Understatement of assets
b. Overstatement of assets
c. Overstatement of capital
d. None of the above

52. Identify the accounting standard which deals with provisions, contingent liabilities and contingent assets.

a. AS 28
b. AS 29
c. AS 30
d. AS 32

53. Match the following

a. 1-c; 2-a; 3-b, 4-d
b. 1-a; 2-b; 3-c, 4-d
c. 1-b; 2-a; 3-d, 4-c
d. 1-d; 2-c; 3-b, 4-a

54. Which of the following financial statements will be provided to the outsiders?

1. Balance sheet
2. Cash Flow Statement
3. P & L A/c
4. Trial Balance

a. 1, 2, 4
b. 1,3
c. 2, 3, 4
d. All 1, 2, 3, 4

55. The procedural aspects of accounting include

a. Generating & using the financial information
b. Generating & classifying the financial information
c. Generating & communicating the financial information
d. None of the above

56. BOD, Investors, Suppliers, Partners, Customers, Managers, Lenders.

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